We need to accelerate depreciation on the tax books for thousands of assets in prior years, and retain the cost, and future depreciation.

So for example, we need to take 50% of the asset depreciation in the year it was put in service, i.e. 2007. The asset would depreciation the remaining value through it’s life.

The partial retirement process gets me the results except it retires the asset, and adjusts the cost.

The adjust accumulated depreciation screen seems to get what we need, however, it is creating additional DPR and/or PDP entries (depending on trans_dt) used. these are small amounts but I can’t figure out where it is getting the number. If I knew how it was getting the nubmer I could adjust my plug to get the answers we need.

This is only for tax books. It is related to new repair regulations where a statistical method was applied by auditors, and we need to sync PeopleSoft to match the new values.

Thanks for any advice or detailed explanation on how the adjust accum depreciation screen works.

We have an asset in Transfer status with some balance on it. How do I retire this asset?
Suggestions please

I’d be happy to help. I need some additional information, though. When you say that the asset is in Transfer status but has a balance on it, do you mean that someone performed a partial transfer on the asset, thus leaving the balance? Or was the transfer somehow corrupted and accidentally left a balance in the old cost center/BU?

I believe it’s a partial transfer and thus leaving balance.

If the partial transfer was within the same business unit, PeopleSoft will want to fully retire the asset, or partially retire both “parts” of the asset.  This is because this is still technically one “asset”, just split between cost centers.  The only way I would know how to fully “retire” part of the transfer is to go in and perform a cost adjustment on the line you wish to “retire.”  Adjust it all the way down to zero and create the retirement entries manually in the GL.

If the partial transfer was an interunit transfer, you should just be able to go to the Retire page and fully retire the asset in question.

…

A great response by kettbs on IT Toolbox to this question:

If you did a partial transfer of cost from one asset to another both assets should be in a status of “In Service”. If you have an asset that has cost and/or depreciation and is in the status of “Transfered”, there is an issue with the asset. Normally the issue maybe be caused by an adjustment to the cost of the asset such as adding additional cost. Review the cost tables and all the chartfields including the Chartfield Sequence Number Field and Activity Switch field. Determine if the chartfield information is the same for all entries in the cost and depreciation tables. (this includes, dept, projects, etc.).

Once you have determine which fields the cost is in, add a new asset for .01 with the same chartfield information that the original assets has. Run depreciation and then transfer the .01 asset to the original asset. Because you are transferring cost back into the asset with the same chartfields this process should change the status of the asset to “in Service” and you should be able to retire it (after running depreciation calculation.) This does not require any SQL’s it is all manual.

SELECT A.BUSINESS_UNIT, A.ASSET_ID, A.BOOK, A.IN_SERVICE_DT,
A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT, A.LIFE,
CASE
WHEN A.LIFE-(COUNT(D.ACCOUNTING_PERIOD)+((C.END_DT-A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT)/
     (C.END_DT-C.BEGIN_DT))-1) < 0 THEN 0
ELSE A.LIFE-(COUNT(D.ACCOUNTING_PERIOD)+((C.END_DT-A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT)/
     (C.END_DT-C.BEGIN_DT))-1)
END AS REMAINING_LIFE
FROM PS_BOOK_CUR_VW A, PS_BU_BOOK_TBL B, PS_CAL_DETP_TBL C,
     PS_CAL_DETP_TBL D, PS_SET_CNTRL_REC T
WHERE A.BUSINESS_UNIT = B.BUSINESS_UNIT
AND A.BOOK = B.BOOK
AND A.BUSINESS_UNIT = T.SETCNTRLVALUE
AND T.REC_GROUP_ID = 'FS_02'
AND T.RECNAME = 'CAL_DETP_TBL'
AND C.SETID = T.SETID
AND B.CAL_DEPR_PD = C.CALENDAR_ID
AND D.SETID = T.SETID
AND B.CAL_DEPR_PD = D.CALENDAR_ID
AND A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT >= C.BEGIN_DT
AND A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT <= C.END_DT
AND D.END_DT >= C.END_DT
AND D.END_DT <= (SELECT DISTINCT N.AS_OF_DATE FROM PS_ASSET_NBV_TBL N
     WHERE N.OPRID = 'VP1' AND N.RUN_ID = 'NBV' AND A.BOOK = N.BOOK)
GROUP BY A.BUSINESS_UNIT, A.ASSET_ID, A.BOOK, A.LIFE, A.IN_SERVICE_DT,
     A.BEGIN_DEPR_DT, C.END_DT, C.BEGIN_DT
ORDER BY A.BUSINESS_UNIT, A.ASSET_ID, A.BOOK;

Note: The SQL hasn't been performance tuned yet.  I will post ways to tune this SQL, or appropriate indexes for the tables referenced, once I have them identified.

An asset was retired in 2007 and in 2009 is now needing to be reinstated. (why? wrong asset was retired.) After the reinstatement is saved and deprcalc is run, no PDP is being created for 2009, just accumulated. Instead DPR is created for all the months after the initial retirement. Only the accumulated depreciation is being posted in 2009. My developer and I have tried resetting the asset back to the initial ADD and rerunning the processes in a variety of ways with the same results. This problem is affecting only two of the three REI I did for 2009 so the problem isn’t even consistently wrong. Suggestions on what to look at next?

I’ve seen this in the past as well. I would certainly agree with Steve – it is never a good idea to delete/purge data from the system. That creates nightmares from an audit and data integrity standpoint.

A workaround that we used for this one-off case was to create the PDP entry yourself in the GL. This option isn’t the cleanest, but it gets you where you need to be. Since you likely won’t be re-running Depreciation Close for the previous periods (the process that actually creates the period’s DPR accounting entries and sends them to GL), you won’t have to worry about double-booking depreciation.

Hi,
I’ve created an online voucher and then i’ve posted it. After that i ran the pre interface process to get the asset details in the pre interface loader table. Then i ran the payables interface process AMPS1000 to get the asset details in the INTFC_PHY_A and INTFC_FIN tables. When i reviewed the INTFC_PHY_A tables, i could not get the location field populated. Please let me know if anyone of you have faced the similar kind of issue.
Thanks in advance,
PP

I’ve encountered this issue at several clients. In the end we’ve had to develop a customization in the INTFAPAM Application Engine to pull in the PS_VOUCHER_LINE.SHIPTO_ID, as our AP Ship To Location ID’s are the same as the AM Asset Location ID’s.

I am pretty sure PeopleSoft removed this code prior to or immediately after Financials version 8.8 for some reason.

Hi Tyson,

I’m facing the same issue, i’ve checked the trace file of INTFAPAM and found that it is populating the location as blank in INTFC_PRE_AM table. Now when i checked the trace for AMPS1000, it is populating the location in INTFC_PHY_A based on the RECEIVER_ID found in INTFC_PRE_AM. And the location is picked from RECV_LN_ASSET table.

The main issue here is even if the RECEIVER_ID is there in the INTFC_PRE_AM table, it is not populating the LOCATION in INTFC_PHY_A table. I’m not sure why is this happening. Any comments on this?

Tyson, could you please explain me the customization that u have performed on INTFAPAM app engine?

Thanks,
P

P,

The customization that we’ve developed in the past was to take the PS_VOUCHER_LINE.SHIPTO_ID and populate the PS_INTFC_PRE_AM.LOCATION field with the same ID (or you can use a translate built off of a custom translate table).

For purchase orders, if your organization enters receipts (uses the Receiving functionality), then we could look into that code as well. Let me know if this is the case and we could explore that option to assign valid locations to asset additions through the interface.